[R-SIG-Finance] Simulating inhomogeneous Poisson process without loop
Harun Ozkan
harunozkan at gmail.com
Mon Jul 4 01:57:37 CEST 2011
dt=.01;
t=seq(0, .5, by=dt)
apply(matrix(t), 1, function (x) { rbinom(1,1,prob=x )} )
would produce a series of Bernoulli trials with success probability t
\in [0, .5].
In my humble opinion, this style is more pertinent in terms of the
programming logic of R although I am not very sure about the efficiency.
All the best.
7/3/2011 7:09 PM, Krishna wrote:
> A reproducible example would help, have you tried FOREACH
>
>
>
> On Jul 3, 2011, at 7:53 AM, Tristan Linke <tristan.linke at gmail.com>
> wrote:
>
>> Dear all
>>
>> I want to simulate a stochastic jump variance process in which N is
>> Bernoulli (Poisson approximation) with intensity lambda0 + lambda1*Vt.
>> lambda0 is constant and lambda1 can be interpreted as a regression
>> coefficient on the current variance level Vt. J is the scaling factor
>>
>> How can I rewrite this avoiding the loop structure which is very
>> time-consuming for long simulations?
>>
>> for (i in 1:N){
>> ...
>> N <- rbinom(n=1, size=1, prob=(lambda0+lambda1*Vt))
>> Vt <- ... + J*N
>> ..
>> }
>>
>> P.S. This is going towards the Duffie, Pan, Singleton 2000 Transform
>> Pricing
>> paper, here stochastic volatility with state-dependent correlated jumps
>> (Eraker 2004).
>>
>> Thanks a lot in advance.
>>
>> [[alternative HTML version deleted]]
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